It was just pointed out to us that one way to prove the Riemann hypothesis true is to prove that it is undecidable (i.e. it can't be proven true or false)

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The reasoning is that if the Riemann hypothesis is false, then it would definitely be possible to prove it false, by finding a counterexample (the Riemann hypothesis is a statement that all the zeroes of a particular function have a particular property, and if you were to find one that doesn't, that would disprove it)

so if it's not possible to prove it either way, true or false, then it must be true.

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